can anyone help please

<b>Forum for teachers teaching adult education </b>

Moderators: Dimitris, maneki neko2, Lorikeet, Enrico Palazzo, superpeach, cecil2, Mr. Kalgukshi2

Post Reply
mmaille
Posts: 11
Joined: Thu Jan 16, 2003 7:17 pm

can anyone help please

Post by mmaille » Tue Apr 15, 2003 10:43 pm

I would like to know why we use the following construction:
"seldom had I ever seen such fear"> Why is the sequence adverb, verb, pronoun...is there some kind of rule? We cannot do this with "always"so does this only apply to certain adverbs of time? Why not simply say " I had seldom seen such fear">

Glenski
Posts: 164
Joined: Fri Jan 17, 2003 2:36 pm
Location: Sapporo, Japan

Post by Glenski » Wed Apr 16, 2003 11:56 am

This type of inversion happens in formal or literary use with seldom, hardly, rarely, little, and never.

See Practical English Usage, by Michael Swan, section 298.5

Roger
Posts: 274
Joined: Thu Jan 16, 2003 1:58 am

Post by Roger » Fri Apr 18, 2003 11:48 pm

This syntax is correct. This sentence structure with the adverb at the head of it is common when the interlocutor wants to EMPHASISE (put stress on) the adverb rather than on the verb.
Look at other utterances in which the word order is at variance with the standard S-V-O:
"I really want to have a drink NOW..."
'So DO I..."

claire73
Posts: 8
Joined: Thu Apr 24, 2003 2:43 pm

Post by claire73 » Thu Apr 24, 2003 3:12 pm

It is fine to put "seldom" at the beginning of the sentence, for emphasis. However, you do not need "ever" because it emphasises in a different way, for example "It was the worst shock I had ever had". Either "Seldom had I seen such fear" or "I had hardly ever seen such fear", but not a mixture.

Post Reply