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T-J
Joined: 10 Oct 2008
Location: Seoul EunpyungGu Yeonsinnae
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 Posted: Thu Jan 21, 2010 5:51 pm Post subject: Another grammar question |
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I heard him calling my name.
vs.
I heard his calling my name.
I think the second is correct based on a gerund being preceded by a possessive pronoun being the rule. However to my American ear, the first sounds better.
Is this a case of the exception becoming the rule due to repeatedly breaking it? |
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reactionary
Joined: 22 Oct 2006
Location: korreia
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| Posted: Thu Jan 21, 2010 5:56 pm Post subject: |
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The first sounds better to me really.
I heard him walking, talking, eating
I heard you walking, talking, eating
I heard "your"?...It just sounds off to me. |
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seonsengnimble
Joined: 02 Jun 2009
Location: taking a ride on the magic English bus
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| Posted: Thu Jan 21, 2010 6:05 pm Post subject: |
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The first is okay too. The first isn't a gerund, it's a participle.
"I heard him. He was calling my name." "I heard him calling my name."
Think of it this way. "Jumping for joy, he fell off the balcony." In both cases the participle phrases are modifying he or him.
The first actually makes more sense because you're hearing him not his action. |
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T-J
Joined: 10 Oct 2008
Location: Seoul EunpyungGu Yeonsinnae
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| Posted: Thu Jan 21, 2010 7:10 pm Post subject: |
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| seonsengnimble wrote: |
The first is okay too. The first isn't a gerund, it's a participle.
"I heard him. He was calling my name." "I heard him calling my name."
Think of it this way. "Jumping for joy, he fell off the balcony." In both cases the participle phrases are modifying he or him.
The first actually makes more sense because you're hearing him not his action. |
Thank you, you're right in the first sentence calling is a participle and therefore not bound by the possessive rule.
I'm still stuck on the second being correct or incorrect. I think with the possessive, calling is a gerund.
I heard (a, his) calling. Sounds okay.
The problem is when I add my name, it still sounds awkward.
Adding the preposition of, makes it sound better.
I heard a (his) calling of my name.
Is it required or are my ears out of whack? |
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The Cosmic Hum
Joined: 09 May 2003
Location: Sonic Space
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| Posted: Thu Jan 21, 2010 9:59 pm Post subject: Re: Another grammar question |
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| T-J wrote: |
I heard him calling my name.
vs.
I heard his calling my name.
I think the second is correct based on a gerund being preceded by a possessive pronoun being the rule. However to my American ear, the first sounds better.
Is this a case of the exception becoming the rule due to repeatedly breaking it? |
Hey TJ,
For what this is worth,
With the possessive...calling is a gerund.
I heard his calling.
But when you want to use the possessive "his" and 'calling' with an indirect object then you need to convert to the oblique usage - 'calling of'
I heard his calling of my name.
You are right about 'of'.
Compare,
I heard his singing of the national anthem, but not your singing of it. (gerund)...substitute - singing with version.
I heard him singing the singing the national anthem, but I didn't hear you singing.(participle) |
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