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Globutron
Joined: 13 Feb 2010
Location: England/Anyang
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 Posted: Fri May 28, 2010 5:25 am Post subject: |
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I can imagine a northerner dropping the 'h' from 'herbs', BUT, it would sound nowhere near as silly as when it is said in a North American accent with the curling emphasis on the 'r'.
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Exactly this. Sounds forced and uncomfortable from Americans to me. |
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Privateer
Joined: 31 Aug 2005
Location: Easy Street.
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| Posted: Fri May 28, 2010 6:36 am Post subject: |
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| Americans sometimes say 'Did you eat lunch yet?' rather than 'Have you had lunch yet?'. It wouldn't bother me if I didn't have to teach Koreans the Present Perfect. |
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NYC_Gal
Joined: 08 Dec 2009
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| Posted: Fri May 28, 2010 7:49 am Post subject: |
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It's not forced. It comes quite naturally.
Remember: there are many American accents. |
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roknroll
Joined: 29 Dec 2007
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| Posted: Fri May 28, 2010 10:42 pm Post subject: |
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| cj1976 wrote: |
"I've eaten too much" suggests to me that there is an unfinished time or event (today or at this meal that hasn't yet finished).
"I ate too much" sounds like something further in the past (1 hour ago, yesterday etc). |
If you look at the link you posted (or you've posted...lol) previously, the anwer appears simple. From the statement: My stomach hurts. I've eaten too much. Whether the event (in this case, the meal) is finished or not doesn't really matter. For instance, I could say this half-way through the meal or I could say this one hour after the meal. From the link, the simple past is about finished actions with no connection to the present---uses 'then' and excludes 'now'. Whereas, the pp looks back on actions in the past from the present and always includes 'now'. Or as mentioned above from your link--is connected to the present. So what is the connection to the present? The stomach ache of course. It sounds like you limited your response to 'I ate too much' vs 'I've eaten too much' and focused on time factors presumably related to simple past/pp.
S.P. I ate too much. Finished action with no connection to the present (stomach ache, etc.).
P.P. I've eaten to much and now my stomach hurts.
So, the time factor is not the most relevant factor here. In fact, it could be exactly the same. For ex., 1 hour after eating you could say: 'I ate too much'--simple statement in the past. I'm not eating now, don't have a stomach ache...etc. Or, 1 hour after eating, you could say: 'I've eaten too much'---so there should be some connection to now whether it's a stomach ache, you feel really tired or perhaps you can't finish the rest of the meal because you are too full. Of course the latter case would be in the context of eating or munching over a period of 1 hour or a shorter time frame after eating. Or half-way through the meal you could say, knowing your finished eating whether food is left on the plate or not, 'I ate too much'--but this is probably not correct for reasons below.
Having said all of that, I would also think there would be more of a time gap between sp and pp. In the link, he uses: 'I ate too much at lunchtime' for the sp. Makes me wonder, what time is it now? ..lol Why would one say 'I ate too much'? Seems to imply some consequences. So by inference, the person is either experiencing some of the consequences now ('I've eaten..') or they had experienced some of the consequences ('I ate...') which invariably relates to a passage of time...in this particular case it would be how long it would take until the stomach ache has dissipated. So in this regard, it's unlikely that the time could be the same [at least until the effects of eating too much has fully subsided] as the statement implies a residual consequence that requires a certain passage of time for alleviation....why else would you say it? |
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