Korean Job Discussion Forums

[Pablo]

Hi

I don't understand the 366 day contract. If my contract and first paid day of work both began March 5, 2012 and every month my payroll cycle ends on the 4th of the month (with this end date shown on each payslip), then why is the end date on my contract March 5, 2013?

More to the point, am I expected to work on March 5th, 2013? And would I be paid for that day, when my payperiod just ended the day before on March 4th?

Is this another creative way to cheat people out of their severance, even if hypothetically the employer says that you don't have to work that day? "He never worked his last day- did not complete his contract- I owe him no severance."

Thanks for any info or personal experience about this.

[CentralCali]

It's merely confusion on the part of the person who wrote the contract. Not everyone, evidently, can easily grasp the concept of inclusive date. Simply point out to the school/recruiter that the 365th day (or 366th day if encompassing Leap Day) is the day prior to the anniversary date of the contract's first day.

[ttompatz]

Severance is based on a calendar year (labor law).

Not working the 366th day (unless your contracted period included Feb 29) is not relevant to severance.

.

[Pablo]

Thanks, Folks.

[young_clinton]

2012 is a leap year. Therefore it had 29 days last February and will have 366 days total for this year. I'm pretty sure you are paid by the month so you had to work one extra day in February and you're contract is still a year long contract.

[YTMND]

[drcrazy]

Although 2012 has 366 days on the calendar, it will actually be shorter than usual because of 12/21/2012!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

[newb]

[ttompatz]

[cincynate]

[newb]