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raewon
Joined: 16 Jun 2009
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 Posted: Fri Oct 31, 2014 9:48 pm Post subject: grammar question - is to (infinitive) |
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Could someone please help with a question on the following sentences:
1. What a plan does is (to) highlight an expected route.
2. The first thing I do in the morning is (to) make my bed.
For the first sentence, I think both ways are possible - with or without the "to". But a trusted native speaker told me that in the case of the second sentence, "to" is incorrect, and "The first thing I do in the morning is make my bed." I agree that sounds natural, but I would like to know the grammar rule for why it's incorrect in 2. but not in 1. Or is it
correct in 2 as well, but just an archaic usage?
Both sentences were taken directly from the Internet - the second one is part of a quote from Robert Frost.
Thanks for any help with this one. |
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edwardcatflap
Joined: 22 Mar 2009
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| Posted: Fri Oct 31, 2014 10:21 pm Post subject: |
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| They both sound OK to me, with or without the 'to'. |
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raewon
Joined: 16 Jun 2009
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| Posted: Sat Nov 01, 2014 1:01 am Post subject: |
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| Thanks for your reply. Can anyone else confirm that or provide a reason (grammar related) why the second one is right/wrong with the "to"? |
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Fuzzy_Dunlop
Joined: 18 Jun 2014
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| Posted: Sat Nov 01, 2014 10:09 pm Post subject: |
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I am not sure if this fits your specific examples - especially the 2nd one, but it might be of some use in the future.
I am not sure your second sentence fits into any of the uses outline at the following link. Doesn't mean it's wrong though.
http://www.grammaring.com/be-to-infinitive |
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raewon
Joined: 16 Jun 2009
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| Posted: Sun Nov 02, 2014 7:07 pm Post subject: |
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Fuzzy_Dunlop, thanks for your reply. I will keep that reference in mind in the future. It doesn't seem to confirm or disprove the second sentence though....
Thanks! |
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Fuzzy_Dunlop
Joined: 18 Jun 2014
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| Posted: Sun Nov 02, 2014 7:23 pm Post subject: |
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| raewon wrote: |
Fuzzy_Dunlop, thanks for your reply. I will keep that reference in mind in the future. It doesn't seem to confirm or disprove the second sentence though....
Thanks! |
FWIW, I wouldn't use "to" in your second sentence  |
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The Cosmic Hum
Joined: 09 May 2003
Location: Sonic Space
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| Posted: Sun Nov 02, 2014 8:33 pm Post subject: Re: grammar question - is to (infinitive) |
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| raewon wrote: |
Could someone please help with a question on the following sentences:
1. What a plan does is (to) highlight an expected route.
2. The first thing I do in the morning is (to) make my bed.
For the first sentence, I think both ways are possible - with or without the "to". But a trusted native speaker told me that in the case of the second sentence, "to" is incorrect, and "The first thing I do in the morning is make my bed." I agree that sounds natural, but I would like to know the grammar rule for why it's incorrect in 2. but not in 1. Or is it
correct in 2 as well, but just an archaic usage?
Both sentences were taken directly from the Internet - the second one is part of a quote from Robert Frost.
Thanks for any help with this one. |
Hello Raewon,
I'll take a shot at this...but I get the feeling that this is some type of regional convention...which sounds odd to me.
2. The first thing I do in the morning is (to) make my bed.
Poetically...
Is it wrong? Robert Frost is using artistic(poetic) license. In that sense, grammar takes a secondary role to rhythm and meter...even in prose.
Grammatically...
When using ...to make my bed...we have to assume he used ellipsis in his initial clause.
The first thing I like to do in the morning is I like to make my bed.
This, in part, having to do with supplying prescriptive grammarians with the rule of parallelism.
If we delete like to in the first clause, we should delete the same from the second. Big should there...given modern grammar.
I've never heard this usage...ever. Archaic, as you say, would be a good way to describe it.
Again, however, as Ed does not hear anything wrong with it, it may be some kind of regional usage. |
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raewon
Joined: 16 Jun 2009
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| Posted: Sun Nov 02, 2014 11:34 pm Post subject: |
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The Cosmic Hum,
Thanks a lot for your reply (thanks everyone). I feel much better after receiving all of this feedback. I have searched all of my grammar books high and low and did not come across any concrete evidence.. either way. Usually, I just think that it's my lack of knowledge and that the answer is "a given". It's a relief to know that's not the case this time.
I hope some of these questions help others on here as well. |
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The Cosmic Hum
Joined: 09 May 2003
Location: Sonic Space
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| Posted: Mon Nov 03, 2014 1:34 am Post subject: |
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| raewon wrote: |
The Cosmic Hum,
Thanks a lot for your reply (thanks everyone). I feel much better after receiving all of this feedback. I have searched all of my grammar books high and low and did not come across any concrete evidence.. either way. Usually, I just think that it's my lack of knowledge and that the answer is "a given". It's a relief to know that's not the case this time.
I hope some of these questions help others on here as well. |
Cheers Raewon.
I am sure they help quite a few posters. It's always great when we get different perspectives on any given grammar point.
And...apparently, it is helping with Stain's sex life. That's always a good thing, too.
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Fuzzy_Dunlop
Joined: 18 Jun 2014
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| Posted: Mon Nov 03, 2014 7:07 am Post subject: |
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| Cosmic Hun makes a good point - one that I often forget myself, and maybe it should really be the first thing we look at in analyzing language - the genre of the text. That might give you an answer right away. |
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