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Yu_Bum_suk

Joined: 25 Dec 2004
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Posted: Wed Jun 06, 2007 6:12 pm Post subject: Grammatical explanation? |
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"A new variation among American baseball players is to bump elbows with teammates, and american football players have taken to bumping their helments."
Why in the second clause of the sentence is it not 'to bump their...'?
I understand why it 'sounds' right, but how would you explain it to Koreans? |
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RACETRAITOR
Joined: 24 Oct 2005 Location: Seoul, South Korea
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Posted: Wed Jun 06, 2007 6:21 pm Post subject: Re: Grammatical explanation? |
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Yu_Bum_suk wrote: |
"A new variation among American baseball players is to bump elbows with teammates, and american football players have taken to bumping their helments."
Why in the second clause of the sentence is it not 'to bump their...'?
I understand why it 'sounds' right, but how would you explain it to Koreans? |
Maybe just break it down into simpler sentences.
"A new variation among American baseball players is to bump elbows with teammates."
"American football players have taken to bumping their helmets."
It doesn't look weird to me at all. Plus, I fixed the spelling. Please tell me that wasn't your fault. |
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CoDeReBeL

Joined: 04 May 2007
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Posted: Wed Jun 06, 2007 6:38 pm Post subject: |
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Any time you "take to" doing something, you take to doING it. You never, for instance, "take to drink beer," or "take to walk a lot." You "take to drinking beer," or you "take to walking a lot." You can UNDERtake to drink beer or undertake to walk a lot, but if it's just take you're gonna need the "ing" at the end of the verb. Don't ask me why. I didn't invent the language, and I'll be the first to admit that English is pretty much all fucked up. |
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Fat_Elvis

Joined: 17 Aug 2006 Location: In the ghetto
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Posted: Wed Jun 06, 2007 7:15 pm Post subject: |
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My guess is it's a gerund phrase, because an action is the object of the clause. It's similar to start +ing |
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Yu_Bum_suk

Joined: 25 Dec 2004
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Posted: Wed Jun 06, 2007 7:16 pm Post subject: |
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Thanks - and sorry for posting this in the wrong forum. Feel free to move it, mods. |
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yawarakaijin
Joined: 08 Aug 2006
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Posted: Wed Jun 06, 2007 9:01 pm Post subject: Re: Grammatical explanation? |
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double post
Last edited by yawarakaijin on Wed Jun 06, 2007 9:22 pm; edited 1 time in total |
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yawarakaijin
Joined: 08 Aug 2006
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Posted: Wed Jun 06, 2007 9:22 pm Post subject: Re: Grammatical explanation? |
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The way I see it is that "taken to" is a phrasal verb. While it is in fact a verb the prepostion part retains its...hmmmm prepositioness and therefor needs to be followed by a noun. The phrasal verb in question needs an object and therefore a gerund is used in place of a proper noun.
Try it you will see. Some phrasal verbs, like some regular verbs require an object. In lieu of a proper noun the gerund is used. We all know gerunds can be nouns right?
Phrasal verb. They put off go to the party. (X)
They put off going to the party. (correct)
This also throws many students into confusion as in most cases when you have a verb plus an infinitive it is generally understood that the infinitive happens after the main verb.
example: I want to go to the party. First you want then you go
Gerunds are typcially taken as having happened first.
example. I enjoyed watching the movie
First you watched the movie then you were able to say you enjoyed it.
Phrasal verbs throw this general rule of thumb into dissaray.
example I look forward to meeting you.
Obvioulsy you are "looking forward to" before you actually "meet". This messes up a lot of students. I just explain that the prepostion (particle) of the phrasal verb requires a noun to follow and therefore the gerund is used instead. You can easily illustrate to them how " I am looking forward to to meet you is incorrect.
So long answer short, hehe. Phrasal verbs need to be followed by the gerund. There's the rub. How do students know if its a regular verb followed by a prepostion or if the verb and preposition have come together to form a phrasal verb. That's another lesson. [quote |
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