Dave's ESL Cafe's Student Discussion Forums

[dduck]

[obelix]

There is no "d" in "Use to". Mark is saying that if you use "did" then you say "use" with it. You only need the "d" to say "used you to" to your Mum, the Queen, who, after all, speaks The Queen's English.
It's got nuffink to do with silent letters.

[marksesl]

Dear Iain,

"There are: formal English, used for example by professionals in the business world; and informal English used by the average joe on the street." That should be: "There IS formal English ... and informal English" "English" is singular, even if there are two types.

All this talk about formal and informal and silent letters ... ? The statement as it is written should be "Did they use to live in the same room?" If there is no "did" to make it past tense, then naturally you would write "They used to live in the same room." That just basic grammar. Pronouncing the "d" or not is another matter. I never meant to imply that in spoken English the "d" in "used" would ever be pronounced. As Obelix stated, perhaps in very formal speech one might pronounce the "d," but I really don't know. Since "use" or "used" is followed by a "t" in "to," and since the "t" kind'a sounds like a "d," the "d" in "used" has simply been dropped as many trailing sounds on words are, depending upon what follows: It would be very hard to say "used to" pronouncing the "d". If "used" were not followed by "to," then of course is has a different meaning "I used up all my money." Then the "d" would naturally be pronounced.


--Mark
_________________
Visit Mark's ESL World for many ESL resources.

[dduck]

[obelix]

Well of course there's a "d" in "used to", just as there is in daffy duhk but you don't write "did you used to?" for the same reason you don't write, "did you stopped the ball?"



Your Bartleby reference doesn't work.

[marksesl]

I just don't understand all the confusion about "used." It's just like any other past tense verb, isn't it? Obelix writes: "but you don't write 'did you used to?' Well, "did" is already past tense, so naturally we write (and say) "did you use to." You don't put two past tense verbs together.

As far as pronouncing the "d," the "d" is NOT silent. We usually just drop the "d" when "used" is followed by the word "to" for ease of pronunciation.
In other instances the "d" is certainly pronounced: "She used me for my money," "I've used my stereo many times."

What's the problem? Why is this difficult? Is there something I'm missing here?

--Mark
_________________
Visit Mark's ESL World for many ESL resources.

[obelix]

Mark - the definition of an expert is an Englishman 3000 miles away from home.
Daffy is English.
In Mexico.

[dduck]

[marksesl]

Okay, I hold my hand up and admit it. The link I was referring to states that "use to" is used in negative statements and questions. So my bad.

I will sneek off and cower in the corner for a while.

Thanks,
Iain

Dear Iain, No pain no gain. I really don't understand the issue about negative statements and question. I'll have to check into that, so maybe you're teaching me something here too. All I know is that we don't use two past tense verbs. It only takes one past tense verb to make the entire sentence refer to the past, so "Did you used ..." is incorrect for that reason alone.

--Mark
_________________
Visit Mark's ESL World for many ESL resources.

[dduck]

[obelix]

So, actually, when it comes right down to it, it is much less complicated to use the "archaic", 'used they to live in the same room?'
And, by the way, it was not all that long ago, in a decent English school, that you would have earned a snort of derision from your English master if you had tried "did they use to?" on him!

[Lib]

yep! Did anyone have to go through this? -
Pupil: Miss / Sir, can I go to the toilet?
Teacher: You can, but you may not!

[marksesl]

[dduck]

[Corey]