Dave's ESL Cafe's Student Discussion Forums

[Marrion]

[1] It has rained for two days.

[2] It has been raining for two days.


Does this sentence mean "It started to rain two days ago, but now it doesn't rain." at [1]?

Does this sentence mean "It started to rain two days ago, and now it is still raining." at [2] ?

[2006]

Both sentences mean it is still raining.

'It (had) rained for two days.' talks about the past; it doesn't tell us what is happening now.

[Marrion]

If both sentences mean it is still raining,

Does "Spring has come." mean "Spring is still coming"?

Does "I have finished my homework" mean " I am still doing my homework"?

[2006]

No and no.

Why do you think the answers might be 'yes'?

[Marrion]

I was taught that "rain" and "finish" are "action verbs", so when these verbs are used with the present perfect tense, the sentences of the present perfect tense used with "action verbs" mean "the end of action

So

I was taught "It has rained for two days." means that it rained two days ago but now it doesn't rain.

And about "know" as a stative verb
I was taught "I have known her for two years." means I knew her two years ago, and now I still know her.

And then now I am confused with your answer.

[+Immune+]

[1] It has rained for two days.

[2] It has been raining for two days.


Ad.1) It started to rain two days ago, but now it doesn't rain.

Ad.2) It started to rain two days ago, and now it is still raining.


You were right in your first post.
The first sentence means it started to rain two days ago and now we can see an outcome of this action but it does not rain anymore.
The second one, as you might have suspected, refers to an action that was started in the past but still continues.
_________________
"Understand that hapiness is not based on possesions, power or prestige, but on relationships with people you love and respect"

Well, um.. "Never open the refrigerator when you're bored"

[Marrion]

May you be in happiness.

[+Immune+]

[2006]

Of course, I don't agree!
(I am a North American native English speaker so my comments refer specifically to N. A. English. Whether it is different in other places such as
England, I don't know, but I doubt it because it would make no sense.)

If you want to mean that it is no longer raining, why don't you just say 'It rained for two days.'? What is the purpose of the word 'has', if not to mean that it is still raining??????
It seems that perfect tense is very often unnecessarily and inapproriately used by esl students, probably because they are taught to do that by confused teachers. Native speakers rarely use perfect tense for a past completed event because it is not necessary.
Don't use perfect tense, or any other words unless they are needed to
achieve the intended meaning. The 'have' in "I have finished my homework." is a useless word and should not be used.

Finally, there can be a situation in which "it has rained for two days" can refer to a past/completed event, but that is not the situation we are talikg about here.
A...Where I live, it can rain for 5 or 6 days without stopping.
B...Wow, it never rains that long here, but it has rained for 2 days.

[CP]

I agree with 2006. Both sentences mean that it started raining two days ago and it is still raining. "It rained for two days" means it rained for two days and stopped.
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You live a new life for every new language you speak. -Czech proverb