Dave's ESL Cafe's Student Discussion Forums

[navi]

Can one use:
1-I didn't do a lot of things.
to mean:
a-I left a lot of things undone.

In a, the possiblity that I did do a lot of things (and left a lot of other things undone does exist) while in a sentence like
2-'I didn't do much'
such a possibility doesn't exist.

In other words, can 1 both mean a and 2?

[bud]

I'd say yes, it could have either meaning. That's especially true for casual speech. In writing, I might (or might not) express it differently to avoid the ambiguity. I'd more likely write it differently if I intended a as the meaning.

[navi]

Thanks a lot Bud,

Would you say:

3-I didn't do a lot.

has the same ambiguity?

Could it mean:
'There is a lot I didn't do'
leaving open the possibility that I did at the same time do a lot.
or does it just mean: '
I didn't do much.'

[bud]

Yes, I agree that it could also take either meaning. But I think both of them ("didn't do a lot" and "didn't do a lot of things") will mean "didn't do much" 99% of the time. With no context, that's how I'd interpret them. But I can imagine contexts where they mean "I got a lot done, but still I didn't do a lot [of it]."

You are always thought provoking, Navi. Keep up the good work!