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virtually same in meaning?

 
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Seiichi MYOGA



Joined: 13 Jul 2006
Posts: 24
Location: Japan

PostPosted: Fri May 30, 2008 10:38 pm    Post subject: virtually same in meaning? Reply with quote

I think we can rewrite (1) as (2) without changing meaning.

(1) Our sleeping hours are no less free from language than our waking ones — language is even a medium in which our dreams are conveyed.
(F. J. Newmeyer, The Politics of Linguistics)
(2) Our sleeping hours are as free from language as our waking ones — language is even a medium in which our dreams are conveyed.

Are you of the same opinion?

Thank you in advance
Seiichi MYOGA
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CP



Joined: 12 Jun 2006
Posts: 2875
Location: California

PostPosted: Sat May 31, 2008 7:46 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

No. (1) implies that both waking and sleeping are full of language, which is true, while (2) implies that both waking and sleeping are empty of language, which is false.
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Seiichi MYOGA



Joined: 13 Jul 2006
Posts: 24
Location: Japan

PostPosted: Sat May 31, 2008 5:29 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Dear CP,

I appreciate your help and comments.

Can I ask one more question for this thread?

Supposing we can use "as ... as" to convey the idea that both waking and sleeping are full of language (as (1) implies) , how can we say it?

(1) Our sleeping hours are no less free from language than our waking ones — language is even a medium in which our dreams are conveyed.

Seiichi MYOGA
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CP



Joined: 12 Jun 2006
Posts: 2875
Location: California

PostPosted: Sat May 31, 2008 9:23 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Try this:

Our sleeping hours are as full of language as our waking hours are � language is a medium in which even our dreams are conveyed.

(Note the new place for "even.")
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