Larry,
First of all, there are 48 slides in
http://www.let.uu.nl/~slr/gram4/sld001.htm
Each individual slide doesn't say much, but together they form a reasonable simple (possibly simplistic) introduction to mood and modality. Perhaps it would have been nicer if it hadn't included an analysis of Dutch too. I don't think it was ever intended to be detailed. Either way, I think "balony" is a bit strong.
I see Steven thinks it is "plain nonsense".
Voice and Aspect have to do with the way the speaker sees the situation are either so vague as to be meaningless, or downright wrong, depending on how charitable you feel.
Steven, by itself I would say that is true but it is explained more fully further on.
Have you both actually viewed all 48 slides?
Thank you for clarifying that you thought modality refers back to the speaker not the subject, of course it is only when the subject is "I" that the two coincide.
Concerning my questions, I see that you have not answered them one by one, I have tried to extract the answers please tell me if I have misinterpreted what you wrote:
1. What is a verb and what is it about modals that makes them not verbs?
Finite verbs inflect, or change their form, to show particular points-of-view taken by the user as expressed with tense, to show the temporal interpretation of events as expressed with aspects, and to show agreement with number and person of the subject.
but modals "mostly occur in pairs showing remote and unmarked flavours." You stated that "must" doesn't have a corresponding remote and unmarked flavour. [Using your terminology, "must" was actually the remote and unmarked flavour of "mote" which only survives in the response to vows in Freemasonry: "So mote it be!" (So I'm told, I'm not a freemason.)]
So you think that modals are not verbs because they do not inflect for tense but have remote unmarked flavour instead. I have always though of this as psychological distance but I think it amounts to the same thing. Clearly there are times when the remote unmarked flavour of a modal verb does not indicate the past but there are cases when it does.
I should point out here that when a verb is in the subjunctive mood and third conditional then this can apply to verbs that you would accept as verbs.
eg. It's high time I went to bed. (If I don't finish this to night its probably because its high time I went to bed.)
You said we can't say "canned go" well the remote form of "can" is "could" and one can say "could" go" You said we can't say "woulding helped". Here I would point out that there are plenty of languages, such as Thai, that do not have present participles or gerunds. Are we to conclude that they have no verbs? Modern Greek by the way has no infinitive.
Larry, if you still think that catenatives all include the word "to" you clearly still haven't looked at my Venn diagram of the English catenatives:
http://www.geocities.com/endipatterson/catenative
Catenatives conventionally don't include the modals (though I think they should), but they include verbs followed by gerunds and the infinitive with "to", verbs followed by the object, "to" and the infinitive and verbs that can be followed by the object and bare infinitive.
I'm afraid going to stop here for now before going on to the next questions because its late and I think its high time I went to bed.
Andrew Patterson