Teacher Discussion Forums

I've come across a sentence like this in a book. The book instructs that one should fill in the gaps with any appropriate"tense" of can (and this includes (be) able to):

(1) I ........ write since I broke my arm.

I'd put can't, but another teacher told me that haven't been able to would be the right answer because of the since there, now I believe both are possible, what do you think?

José

For me, If you write "I haven't been able to write since I broke my arm." the "since" is the one used with present perfect. (I broke my arm, and from that time forward, I haven't been able to write."

If you say, "I can't write since I broke my arm." I'm more likely to think that the "since" means "because" and the reason you can't write is because you broke your arm.

Nope, that's not a rule Just how it "feels" to me.

You hit the head on the nail Lorikeet, my friend thinks this since could only be attached with the Present Perfect and went on saying that if it meant because it would start the sentence, like you, for me the appropriate choice would be on what one feels at the moment.

José