Teacher Discussion Forums

Posted: **Tue Mar 17, 2009 5:47 pm**

Given:

(1) How could I hear not?
(2) How couldn't I hear?

Is (1) only old usage (as somebody in another forum I take part claims) or does it have a different meaning from (2) in current English? If it is proper modern English, how does it differ from (2)?

Thanks

José

Posted: **Tue Mar 17, 2009 5:53 pm**

I don't recognise (1) as modern day usage.

Possibly, 'How could I not hear?'

Posted: **Wed Mar 18, 2009 1:49 am**

Seconded. Definitely bard talk.