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JPrufrock
Joined: 27 Mar 2007 Posts: 22
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 12:15 am Post subject: Interesting question from a student... |
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I was asked, when one should use "for me," or "to me" at the end of a sentence. The example we were discussing was the statement, "This is too spicy." Or, "This is too spicy, TO me." And, "This is too spicy, FOR me." I suggested that "to me" recognized that it was only in the speaker's opinion. While "for me" would refer to their actual tolerance level/health, and that the statement wasn't open for debate.
But in thinking of other examples, I realized that it depends more on inflection and how the sentence is said that creates a sense of opinion or declaration.
Does anyone have any ideas for the use of "to me" and "for me" at the end of opinionative or declarative sentences? Is there a grammatical rule? |
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JimDunlop2

Joined: 31 Jan 2003 Posts: 2286 Location: Japan
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 12:35 am Post subject: |
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I've never heard "This is too spicy to me" before, and if I did, I'd probably tell a student that's incorrect. |
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Shimmeringstar
Joined: 18 Mar 2007 Posts: 34 Location: Kagoshima, Japan
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 12:59 am Post subject: |
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I'm not sure if there is an actual rule about these things or not. However, I believe both sentences are correct.
"This is too spicy to me," means the same as, "This is too spicy, in my opinion."
"This is too spicy for me," means it is to spicy for ME to eat, but may not be too spicy for you or someone else.
So, the sentences have different meanings, but both can be correctly used. |
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jademonkey
Joined: 30 Mar 2007 Posts: 180
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 2:05 am Post subject: |
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"Articles are a fun and exciting way to confuse the hell out of yourself when studying English."
Seriously, most native speakers make these kind of mistakes now and again. |
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JPrufrock
Joined: 27 Mar 2007 Posts: 22
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 5:39 am Post subject: |
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Not sure if this applies to most Western English speakers. I come form the US. Maybe limeys don't have this in their lexicon. But here goes an example:
A: "This dish is really mild."
B: "It tastes spicy to me."
You've never heard this usage? And realated usage? Reallly?
Sounds like a pile of horse manure to me. |
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madeira
Joined: 13 Jun 2004 Posts: 182 Location: Oppama
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 11:17 am Post subject: |
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There is something strange-sounding there... I've checked Swan, and it didn't help much. It just says " a for-structure is often used after too and enough". So, this could be a matter of common patterns and not grammar rules. |
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elliot_spencer
Joined: 26 Feb 2007 Posts: 495
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 11:28 am Post subject: |
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I've never used or heard spicy to me - IN British English anyway, but, I would always use for me.
I don't think there is a grammatical rule when using for and to me unless it's a specific sentance like ;
Will you call John for me and/or Will you address the letter to me.
I think it's just one of those things that needs to be learnt as set phrases just like conjuctions! |
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elliot_spencer
Joined: 26 Feb 2007 Posts: 495
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 11:32 am Post subject: |
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One more thing, after thinking - I suppose that you could say that in your opinion something is too spicy - but then you'd say
To me, this is too spicy as opposed to - This is to spicy to me.
This shows that the speaker has/is trying it and has found it too spicy.
Whereas This is too spicy for me - shows that the speaker has tried it before and is saying that it's far too spicy and therefore won't be having any! |
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jademonkey
Joined: 30 Mar 2007 Posts: 180
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 1:19 pm Post subject: |
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This is too spicy to me. = an assertation that the dish is generally too spicy.
This is too spicy for me. = a more personal assertation that the dish is too spicy for the person tasting it.
But really, that's being quite pedantic. |
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Gordon

Joined: 28 Jan 2003 Posts: 5309 Location: Japan
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 1:45 pm Post subject: |
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This topic is too boring to me. This topic is too boring for me.
Both seem correct. |
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markle
Joined: 17 Jan 2003 Posts: 1316 Location: Out of Japan
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 1:49 pm Post subject: |
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Come on people, we are thinking a bit too hard about this.
"This is too spicy to me" is just plain wrong and no native speaker would say it sober.
"This seems, tastes, looks, etc (too) spicy to me" is correct since you need the verb with 'to'.
An adjective, comparative or superlative needs 'for' |
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JPrufrock
Joined: 27 Mar 2007 Posts: 22
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Posted: Sun Apr 29, 2007 6:08 pm Post subject: |
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Ugh.
Yeah. My original example was incorrect. Thanks for the help markle. And thanks for noting my mistakes and overthinking.
[quote] Come on people, we are thinking a bit too hard about this.
"This is too spicy to me" is just plain wrong and no native speaker would say it sober.
"This seems, tastes, looks, etc (too) spicy to me" is correct since you need the verb with 'to'.
An adjective, comparative or superlative needs 'for' [quote]
But if I said, "This sounds very incorrect to me." I wouldn't say, "This sounds very incorrect for me." Or, "This sounds like it wouldn't always be true, to me." ??????????
Anyway, thanks for any eanest attempt at help, sans criticism or the oh so common Dave's snobbery. This forum smells like old people. |
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Clerk
Joined: 13 Apr 2007 Posts: 17
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Posted: Mon Apr 30, 2007 5:37 am Post subject: |
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JPrufrock wrote: |
But if I said, "This sounds very incorrect to me." I wouldn't say, "This sounds very incorrect for me." Or, "This sounds like it wouldn't always be true, to me." ?????????? |
I may be mistaken, but I believe it's a matter of syntax. When using sounds, tastes, seems, or other sensory verbs, the reflexive "me" is an indirect object, which takes to. Additionally, I think the sentence has some syntactic deletions that are now used regularly, and those deletions are confusing the reading of the sentence.
- "This sounds very incorrect to me." (or, "This sounds to me as though it is very incorrect.") vs.
- "This sounds very incorrect for me." (or, "This sounds as though it is very incorrect for me." -- I'm not sure if this sentence would ever be used...);
and
- "This sounds like it wouldn't always be true, to me." (or, "This sounds to me like it wouldn't always be true." -- I think the speechlike placement of the comma is indicative of a mental gap due to the awkward splitting of the phrase) vs.
- "This sounds like it wouldn't always be true for me."
Using italics might be insufficient to show the links between the words, but the gist is that to links a sensory verb and an indirect object, while for in this case just starts a prepositional phrase modifying the adjective. |
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JPrufrock
Joined: 27 Mar 2007 Posts: 22
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Posted: Mon Apr 30, 2007 5:43 am Post subject: |
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Thanks clerk! |
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markle
Joined: 17 Jan 2003 Posts: 1316 Location: Out of Japan
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Posted: Tue May 01, 2007 3:00 am Post subject: |
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JPrufrock wrote: |
But if I said, "This sounds very incorrect to me." I wouldn't say, "This sounds very incorrect for me." Or, "This sounds like it wouldn't always be true, to me." ??????????. |
I'm a little confused by the question but the first statement is correct (I just wouldn't use 'very' since it indicates a high degree whereas something is usually either correct or incorrect hence you would use 'completely' or 'totally' to modify it) the second statement is again, incorrect as clerk says because the sensory verb needs to to work. I see nothing wrong with the third statement since it is the same grammatical structure as the first.
I think a lot of confusion is created because given the right context (and they are infinite) any statement could be made to be correct. The trouble is that most ESL teachers have a poor knowledge of grammar and grammar rules (I couldn't explain the grammar as well as Clerk did) so are hesitant to say for certain if something is correct or not.
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sans criticism or the oh so common Dave's snobbery. |
Oh I've been guilty of that from time to time, the trick is to ignore it and focus on the useful stuff. |
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