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spyro25
Joined: 23 Nov 2004
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Posted: Mon Mar 19, 2007 2:05 am Post subject: conditional question |
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i'm a little confused as to how this works
my students were using past simple form with 'if' to talk about something they might do in the future.
the example was 'if i went to a bank, could i ask the teller.........'
i was confused here about saying 'if i go to a bank' between 'if i went to a bank'. the same kind of problem occured in a number of other students utterances where they used the past tense form of the verb in this statement.
another example was 'if i saw a magpie in the morning then it is bad luck'
i thought it should be 'if i see a magpie in the morning then it is bad luck'
any ideas what is going on here? i think it is to do with whether the subordinate clause is in present simple (it is) versus the conditional (it would be). we are trying to discuss common superstitions in korean culture. am i right in my thinking about this one? |
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J.B. Clamence

Joined: 15 Jan 2003
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Posted: Mon Mar 19, 2007 3:38 am Post subject: |
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Past tense is used in conditionals to suggest an impossible or unlikely scenario. Thus "If I went to a bank..." would imply that you probably will not actually go to the bank, but you are simply suggesting what you would do in that hypothetical situation.
Present tense would be used for situation which may realistically happen. "If I go to the bank..." implies that you may indeed go to the bank.
Another example to show this rule is "If I won the lottery..." We use past tense because your chances of winning the lottery are slim to none. |
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faster

Joined: 03 Sep 2006
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Posted: Mon Mar 19, 2007 4:57 am Post subject: |
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J.B. is right - the variation with conditionals is degree of likelihood, with past tenses generally offering a lower one. Past can also be used conditionally to distance speaker from listener, sometimes for politeness ("Could you loan me $5?"). And, of course, sometimes as a time referent.
Another point is that the verbs must agree: "If I went to the bank could I withdraw all my money?" or "If I kill you now will I go to jail?"
Notice, in the last example, that "will," although it creates a future tense with "go" is, itself, present. That's an easy way to teach the verb agreement: unless there's a time change, the first verbs in very phrases must agree. |
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Novernae
Joined: 02 Mar 2005
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Posted: Mon Mar 19, 2007 6:23 am Post subject: Re: conditional question |
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Yes, the difference is in the chance of it happening.
The past subjunctive tense is only acceptable in the more improbable or hypothetical situation, not in talking about something they might do in the future, in which case the present tense should be used.
To use your own examples:
If I went to a bank, could I ask the teller to do it for me?... Hypothetical situation, may or may not happen, or you are looking for a solution to the problem, and this might be it.
If I go to the bank, can I ask the teller to do it for me?... You are thinking of going to the bank and if you do, you want to know if you can ask.
Think of the next example.
Your student:
"If i saw a magpie in the morning then it is bad luck." Here they are mixing up the two, which is not correct. It should be either:
If I saw a magpie in the morning, it would be bad luck. (some hypothetical situation, and how they would react if such a hypothetical situation were to occur)
If I see a magpie in the morning, it will be bad luck. (they have a test on Wednesday and if they see a magpie that morning, they will do poorly on the test.)
edited: to add the word subjunctive...
Last edited by Novernae on Mon Mar 19, 2007 6:13 pm; edited 1 time in total |
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Hater Depot
Joined: 29 Mar 2005
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Posted: Mon Mar 19, 2007 4:50 pm Post subject: |
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Quote: |
Past can also be used conditionally to distance speaker from listener, sometimes for politeness ("Could you loan me $5?"). |
That is not past tense, it's the subjunctive mood, no? If it were past tense it would be "Could you have loaned me $5?" |
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jodemas2
Joined: 06 Dec 2006
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Posted: Mon Mar 19, 2007 5:34 pm Post subject: |
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Hater Depot wrote: |
That is not past tense, it's the subjunctive mood, no? If it were past tense it would be "Could you have loaned me $5?" |
I was beginning to think I was crazy, or don't they teach subjunctive mood anymore? The OP's examples are not, in fact, past tense (altho they may look the same), they are present subjunctive. We use the subjunctive when the condition is possible but not probable.
At the school where I currently teach, they have their own method of grammar teaching and they call this construction the "present unreal." As they explain it, it looks like they simple past for all verbs except "to be," which uses "were" for all persons in the conditional clause, and the modal auxiliaries would, could or might/may in the main clause, depending on if the action is definite, possible or uncertain, respectively. |
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Novernae
Joined: 02 Mar 2005
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Posted: Mon Mar 19, 2007 6:17 pm Post subject: |
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Hater Depot wrote: |
Quote: |
Past can also be used conditionally to distance speaker from listener, sometimes for politeness ("Could you loan me $5?"). |
That is not past tense, it's the subjunctive mood, no? If it were past tense it would be "Could you have loaned me $5?" |
Yes, but it is the past subjunctive.
This site the different subjunctive tenses pretty well. |
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faster

Joined: 03 Sep 2006
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Posted: Tue Mar 20, 2007 5:57 am Post subject: |
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Well, I meant the individual verb (the auxiliary, used to make up what you refer to as the conditional or the subjunctive), so you could say "past conditional" or something.
But the way I see (and teach) it, there are only 2 proper tenses in English, and conjugation bears that out. All the other moods and voices use verb phrases, each verb of which is past or present. So "I will go" is future time, but present tense. This is an elegant way to easily identify verb agreement in complex sentences and a convenient way to underscore the fact that tense is only loosely related to time, if at all. |
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mediano tzu
Joined: 13 Oct 2006 Location: The 'rea
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Posted: Tue Mar 20, 2007 6:36 am Post subject: |
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Right, so the hypothetical thing makes sense to me, but what about the following:
None of us is going.
None of us are going.
Which is correct and why?
I know this is off-topic, but I don't see any need to start a new thread for this. |
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Novernae
Joined: 02 Mar 2005
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Posted: Tue Mar 20, 2007 6:40 am Post subject: |
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faster wrote: |
Well, I meant the individual verb (the auxiliary, used to make up what you refer to as the conditional or the subjunctive), so you could say "past conditional" or something.
But the way I see (and teach) it, there are only 2 proper tenses in English, and conjugation bears that out. All the other moods and voices use verb phrases, each verb of which is past or present. So "I will go" is future time, but present tense. This is an elegant way to easily identify verb agreement in complex sentences and a convenient way to underscore the fact that tense is only loosely related to time, if at all. |
Have you got any documentation on this way of seeing things? I'm curious. |
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Novernae
Joined: 02 Mar 2005
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Posted: Tue Mar 20, 2007 6:45 am Post subject: |
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mediano tzu wrote: |
Right, so the hypothetical thing makes sense to me, but what about the following:
None of us is going.
None of us are going.
Which is correct and why?
I know this is off-topic, but I don't see any need to start a new thread for this. |
The indefinite pronouns another, each, either, none and neither as well as those ending in -one, -body, -thing are always singular and take a singular verb.
Therefore, "None of us is" or "None of us knows" are correct. However, in informal speech, the second is often heard. |
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mediano tzu
Joined: 13 Oct 2006 Location: The 'rea
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Posted: Tue Mar 20, 2007 7:07 am Post subject: |
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Novernae wrote: |
mediano tzu wrote: |
Right, so the hypothetical thing makes sense to me, but what about the following:
None of us is going.
None of us are going.
Which is correct and why?
I know this is off-topic, but I don't see any need to start a new thread for this. |
The indefinite pronouns another, each, either, none and neither as well as those ending in -one, -body, -thing are always singular and take a singular verb.
Therefore, "None of us is" or "None of us knows" are correct. However, in informal speech, the second is often heard. |
I always thought that the "none" modified "us" and it remained plural, but I think you're right anyway. |
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faster

Joined: 03 Sep 2006
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Posted: Tue Mar 20, 2007 7:19 am Post subject: |
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Novernae is definitely right. |
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J.B. Clamence

Joined: 15 Jan 2003
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Posted: Wed Mar 21, 2007 10:13 am Post subject: |
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mediano tzu wrote: |
I always thought that the "none" modified "us" and it remained plural, but I think you're right anyway. |
Actually it doesn't because "of us" is a prepositional phrase and thus cannot effect the verb conjugation. It is singular for the same reason that "one of the players" is singular--anything that comes after "of" doesn't count. |
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denverdeath
Joined: 21 May 2005 Location: Boo-sahn
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