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asams

Joined: 17 Nov 2008
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Posted: Wed Apr 22, 2009 10:32 pm Post subject: Quick question about "has/has got".... |
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In all of the writing books I use I'm seeing "has got" to show possession instead of simply "has"....
Example: Tommy has got five siblings. - I would say: Tommy has five siblings.
I tell my students to just use "has" but I assume that "has got" is also right, since these text books would never have incorrect information
Does anyone know the rule for using has and has got, or is it simply a matter of preference?
Edited to include example |
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Straphanger
Joined: 09 Oct 2008 Location: Chilgok, Korea
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Posted: Wed Apr 22, 2009 10:37 pm Post subject: |
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Drop that grammar book and pick up a dictionary. The answers you seek can be found within. |
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The Gipkik
Joined: 30 Mar 2009
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Posted: Wed Apr 22, 2009 11:20 pm Post subject: |
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Do you have any extra paper? Have you got any extra paper? Identical in meaning, but the latter uses present perfect. It might be a politeness thing. I believe the Brits may use "have got" more often than the present simple "have." Still, there are contexts where "have got" is more normal and specific like when you are answering the phone--"I've got it!" Here there is a difference in meaning emphasizing something you are getting or have gotten. Just think about which word is being stressed in the phrase. Is it "have" or "got," and you'll have all the information you need. Youtube used to have GoGo Adventures in English, lesson 14 on "have got," but it just got pulled a couple of days ago.
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bogey666

Joined: 17 Mar 2008 Location: Korea, the ass free zone
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 12:11 am Post subject: Re: Quick question about "has/has got".... |
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asams wrote: |
In all of the writing books I use I'm seeing "has got" to show possession instead of simply "has"....
Example: Tommy has got five siblings. - I would say: Tommy has five siblings.
I tell my students to just use "has" but I assume that "has got" is also right, since these text books would never have incorrect information
Does anyone know the rule for using has and has got, or is it simply a matter of preference?
Edited to include example |
from an American perspective (aka mine)
it's widely used to indicate possession, however, I consider it more along slang/common man usage.
Americans will always contract it to he's got.. she's got..i've got instead of saying the whole thing. That might be a British pecularity.
I would never ever write a paper, for e.g. or an article, or anything mean to be read by an educated audience and use it to indicate possession.
it is however, very common in everday speech.
and in slogans.
e.g. "he's got mad skilz"
he's got a great arm.
blah blah blah
and music
e.g. what's love got to do with it?
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Stones1962
Joined: 26 Nov 2008 Location: Europe/Asia
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 12:57 am Post subject: |
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Practical English Usage by Michael Swan is a good book to have....invest in it and you'll the answers at your fingertips |
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the foystein
Joined: 23 Apr 2007
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 1:13 am Post subject: |
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I do not think the book is correct. |
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asams

Joined: 17 Nov 2008
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 1:38 am Post subject: Re: Quick question about "has/has got".... |
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bogey666 wrote: |
asams wrote: |
In all of the writing books I use I'm seeing "has got" to show possession instead of simply "has"....
Example: Tommy has got five siblings. - I would say: Tommy has five siblings.
I tell my students to just use "has" but I assume that "has got" is also right, since these text books would never have incorrect information
Does anyone know the rule for using has and has got, or is it simply a matter of preference?
Edited to include example |
from an American perspective (aka mine)
it's widely used to indicate possession, however, I consider it more along slang/common man usage.
Americans will always contract it to he's got.. she's got..i've got instead of saying the whole thing. That might be a British pecularity.
I would never ever write a paper, for e.g. or an article, or anything mean to be read by an educated audience and use it to indicate possession.
it is however, very common in everday speech.
and in slogans.
e.g. "he's got mad skilz"
he's got a great arm.
blah blah blah
and music
e.g. what's love got to do with it?
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My thoughts exactly. It just doesn't sound right to me. For someone that wasn't an English major and never studied grammar exhaustively, I have a pretty firm grasp on the rules and such. Usually I go with what sounds right to me, and this is one thing that does not sound right. I'll continue to tell my students to erase "got" in their books |
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b-class rambler
Joined: 25 Mar 2009
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 1:59 am Post subject: Re: Quick question about "has/has got".... |
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bogey666 wrote: |
Americans will always contract it to he's got.. she's got..i've got instead of saying the whole thing. That might be a British pecularity.
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No, British use of it is mostly the same in that regard; it's nearly always the contracted form that's used. I think the OP's text book example sounds a little strange. "Tommy's got 5 siblings" would be much more likely to be used IMO.
Regarding politeness, Gipkik was onto something about that in British usage but I'd say it's perhaps the other way around and that in BE "have" is often seen as more polite, particularly in the question form.
I had always been under the impression that although has/have got was used less by North Americans than British, it WAS still used a fair bit in North America and was perfectly well understood. I've certainly never noticed any Americans I've known not being familiar with the expression. So I'm a little surprised you've never come across it before, OP. Or is it really never used wherever you're from? |
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bogey666

Joined: 17 Mar 2008 Location: Korea, the ass free zone
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 3:10 am Post subject: |
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I've never studied grammar, nor am I an English major, but it seems to me we're talking about a technicality.
he's got and he has got are effectively the SAME thing.
the contraction doesn't come from "is", but from "has".
if a=b, then technically they are interchangeable.
they are clearly not interchangeably used in everyday speech though.
the elongated version is very rare, and indeed would sound "strange" most of the time (though not always) |
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Kikomom

Joined: 24 Jun 2008 Location: them thar hills--Penna, USA--Zippy is my kid, the teacher in ROK. You can call me Kiko
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 5:27 am Post subject: |
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Using 'got' for 'have' is incorrect, and makes me cringe when I hear it--even though I might do it unconsciously now and then myself.
Congugate the verb 'get' and you have the proper usage:
Get ... Got ... Gotten
The Grammar Bible, page 51 |
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fustiancorduroy
Joined: 12 Jan 2007
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 5:47 am Post subject: |
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Kikomom wrote: |
Using 'got' for 'have' is incorrect, and makes me cringe when I hear it--even though I might do it unconsciously now and then myself.
Congugate the verb 'get' and you have the proper usage:
Get ... Got ... Gotten
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The past participle of Get is Gotten OR Got. "Have got" is not incorrect. |
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bogey666

Joined: 17 Mar 2008 Location: Korea, the ass free zone
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 7:21 am Post subject: |
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Kikomom wrote: |
Using 'got' for 'have' is incorrect, and makes me cringe when I hear it--even though I might do it unconsciously now and then myself.
Congugate the verb 'get' and you have the proper usage:
Get ... Got ... Gotten
The Grammar Bible, page 51 |
that's why I consider it "common man/slang" talk and would NEVER ever use it as such in a paper or article.
and if I were grading a paper which included such usage, the grade would drop precipitously. |
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ArizonaBill
Joined: 24 Mar 2009
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 1:56 pm Post subject: |
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Gotten is supposedly more common in American English and got (as the past participle of get) is more common in British English.
Have got is an entirely different kind of word. It's used as a unit, colloquially, as an emphatic replacement for have or must. Past participle rules don't really apply since the got works like an auxiliary verb. Though it's often shunned in formal writing, it's considered good English since sentences that use have got (which is almost always contracted) rather than have or must, often have slightly different meanings.
For a basic definition for your students, you can just say that have got is slightly more casual than have or must, is almost always used contracted, and is very common in the spoken language. Sometimes using it is inappropriate, though. For instance in the example from the textbook in the original post. Have is generally preferred in formal writing when there is no change in meaning between the two forms.
My opinion is that for the English-speaker's mouth, 've got is slightly easier to say than the word have. Changing the mouth from the H-position to the V-position seems to be rather inefficient compared to starting in the V-position, bouncing out a G, and stopping at an unaspirated T. At least that's how it feels in my mouth. YMMV.
Last edited by ArizonaBill on Thu Apr 23, 2009 5:26 pm; edited 2 times in total |
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some waygug-in
Joined: 25 Jan 2003
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 2:50 pm Post subject: |
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I think you people have got it all under control. It's one of those usage thingys that are acceptable in spoken English, but would not be used for any kind of academic writing.
Ya got that?
So now that ya got it, I gotta take a crap.
Yeepers, I gots ta gits me tu a crapper 'n pronto! |
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Easter Clark

Joined: 18 Nov 2007 Location: Hiding from Yie Eun-woong
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Posted: Thu Apr 23, 2009 3:22 pm Post subject: |
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There's nothing wrong with your book. It' (the book, that is) is likely British English. Both are correct, it's a matter of preference. Telling your students to cross out "got" is doing them a disservice! |
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