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cubanlord



Joined: 08 Jul 2005
Location: In Japan!

PostPosted: Sat Sep 23, 2006 4:50 am    Post subject: Grammar Question... Reply with quote

How would you go about explaining why sentence 1 and 2 are ok and sentence 3 is not ok?

Sentence 1 - Jack isn't happy, but I'm happy.
Sentence 2 - Mary isn't happy, but I am.
Sentence 3 - Frank isn't happy, but I'm.
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pdxsteve



Joined: 29 Sep 2004
Location: Bundang

PostPosted: Sat Sep 23, 2006 5:10 am    Post subject: Re: Grammar Question... Reply with quote

cubanlord wrote:
How would you go about explaining why sentence 1 and 2 are ok and sentence 3 is not ok?

Sentence 1 - Jack isn't happy, but I'm happy.
Sentence 2 - Mary isn't happy, but I am.
Sentence 3 - Frank isn't happy, but I'm.


Because we can't contract personal pronouns at the end of a sentence.

"I'm not happy, but she's."
"He won't be happy, but they'll".

Etc.
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Smee



Joined: 24 Dec 2004
Location: Jeollanam-do

PostPosted: Sat Sep 23, 2006 5:12 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

I'll wait for a true grammarian to weigh in, but it looks to me like it has something to do with the subjects in the clauses.
Also, I think parallelism (sp?) comes into play: that is, what happens on one side of the conjunction (but) must happen on the other.

Look at the sentence "Frank isn't happy, but I'm." The first clause has an adjective, but the second one doesn't. Therefore you shouldn't make a contraction. (Likewise, in the first clause it isn't the subject "Frank" that's contracted, it's the verb.)

But what about "Frank's not happy, but I'm"? I think here you can talk about parallelism. There's no adjective in the second clause, so it's awkward.

But "Frank's not happy, but I'm great" is okay. It's because there's an adjective in both the first and the second clauses.

That's my take, but I wonder what others think about it.
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ChuckECheese



Joined: 20 Jul 2006

PostPosted: Sat Sep 23, 2006 5:18 am    Post subject: Re: Grammar Question... Reply with quote

pdxsteve wrote:
cubanlord wrote:
How would you go about explaining why sentence 1 and 2 are ok and sentence 3 is not ok?

Sentence 1 - Jack isn't happy, but I'm happy.
Sentence 2 - Mary isn't happy, but I am.
Sentence 3 - Frank isn't happy, but I'm.


Because we can't contract personal pronouns at the end of a sentence.

"I'm not happy, but she's."
"He won't be happy, but they'll".

Etc.


Yes. I believe it's called the grammar rule of contraction. When you want to use the verb be to end the sentence, you can, only if you don't contract it with the clause subject. However, when you contract them, it must be followed an object.
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SpedEd



Joined: 03 Feb 2006
Location: ROK

PostPosted: Sat Sep 23, 2006 8:42 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

The contraction, "I'm," always precedes the predicate. "I am" can answer the question, "What are you going to do?". Technically, "I'm" can as well, but grammar gurus never use the contraction at the end of a sentence like #3.
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cubanlord



Joined: 08 Jul 2005
Location: In Japan!

PostPosted: Sat Sep 23, 2006 10:14 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Thanks everyone. I have the answer. I appreciate your responses. Smile
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Fredbob



Joined: 18 Nov 2005
Location: Yongin-Breathing the air-sometimes

PostPosted: Sun Sep 24, 2006 10:04 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Hey OP, what is the answer?
I think I know it but I can't articulate it. Embarassed
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cubanlord



Joined: 08 Jul 2005
Location: In Japan!

PostPosted: Mon Sep 25, 2006 1:30 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Fredbob wrote:
Hey OP, what is the answer?
I think I know it but I can't articulate it. Embarassed


Sure thing:

In Short

Fred isn't happy, but I'm.

1. Stressed words are never contracted.
2. When giving an opposite idea, the part that is changed is stressed


You can't use this contraction on its own because the verb "am" is stressed (since the adjective "happy" is omitted) (Riethmuller, Internet.).

Source:

Riethmuller, L. Shocked in Miami. Message
posted to http://www.udel.edu/eli/questions/g17.html
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Woland



Joined: 10 May 2006
Location: Seoul

PostPosted: Mon Sep 25, 2006 4:21 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

cubanlord wrote:
Fredbob wrote:
Hey OP, what is the answer?
I think I know it but I can't articulate it. Embarassed


Sure thing:

In Short

Fred isn't happy, but I'm.

1. Stressed words are never contracted.
2. When giving an opposite idea, the part that is changed is stressed


You can't use this contraction on its own because the verb "am" is stressed (since the adjective "happy" is omitted) (Riethmuller, Internet.).

Source:

Riethmuller, L. Shocked in Miami. Message
posted to http://www.udel.edu/eli/questions/g17.html


Unfortunately, your argument here is wrong regarding the original sentence you asked about.

First, the reference you cite does not discuss an equivalent example. I quote the relevant part here to make that clear:

Lowell, some guy at University of Delaware wrote:
Note that the following response is not grammatical. You can't use this contraction on its own because the verb "am" is stressed (since the adjective "hungry" is omitted).

Are you hungry? *Yes, I�m.


In other words, when answering a question with what is called a short answer, you can't contract. In this case, it may be because the auxilliary is stressed.

But, in the relevant example from your OP, the case is different (I've added the asterisk to mark the ungrammatical form):

cubanlord wrote:
Sentence 2 - Mary isn't happy, but I am.
Sentence 3 - *Frank isn't happy, but I'm.


In sentence two, the contrast isn't between 'is' and 'am', but between 'Mary' and 'I'. 'I' receives contrastive stress in the second clause, not 'am'. Try saying it out loud as you normally would. Not only should you notice the stress on 'I', but you should also notice the reduction of the vowel in 'am' (Unstressed vowels are qualitatively different from stressed wowels in English.).

Others might take this occasion to propose a rule that one cannot contract items in sentence final position, but I won't. (Get it?)

I also won't say that the proposal about stress made by Lowell is incorrect, just that it can't account for all cases, including the one you proposed initally, cubanlord.

I don't know the definitive answer to this question. Stress may be one principle involved. I note that the examples I can think of of contraction in final position are all negative contraction, so it may a property of verbs in final position as opposed to adverbs (which is what negation is). Such a rule may supercede any principle about stress. It's an interesting question.

Just a final note. The answers from Lowell and others on the UDelaware page aren't always all that hot. It's what happens when you let English majors rather than Linguistics majors answer grammar questions. Another sign that the internet is not the best source of information all the time, even if it comes with a university endorsement.


Last edited by Woland on Mon Sep 25, 2006 5:10 am; edited 1 time in total
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cubanlord



Joined: 08 Jul 2005
Location: In Japan!

PostPosted: Mon Sep 25, 2006 4:35 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

Shocked .... Embarassed Yes. I did quote from the wrong spot. See, there are 3 different questions that address the same argument. Here is the one I meant to list:

A. I�m not aware of any rule that states a contraction is required in the context of short answers.

There are several acceptable ways to answer the question, �Are you hungry?� in the affirmative.

1. Yes.
2. Yes, I am.
3. Yes, I�m hungry.
4. Yes, I am hungry.

All four of these answers are grammatical. Number 4 is formal. Most likely it would not be a frequent respose unless the speaker is emphatic.

Note that the following response is not grammatical. You can't use this contraction on its own because the verb "am" is stressed (since the adjective "hungry" is omitted).

Are you hungry? *Yes, I�m.

I remember a song in the movie Yankee Doodle Dandy, where the stage performers sang the lyrics, "I'm just biding my time because that's the kind of guy I'm." The contraction is needed for the rhyme, but it's ungrammatical.

Lowell


Also this one:

Q. (from Mary) In this sentence that expresses opposite ideas, which part is stressed? I base my question on the rule: When giving an opposite idea, the part that is changed is stressed.

Fred isn't happy, but I'm happy.

A. You should put the stress on the subject pronoun "I." Your attitude is the opposite of Fred's. You can omit "happy" and use the full verb form.

Fred isn't happy, but I am.


By the way, excellent post up there.
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Woland



Joined: 10 May 2006
Location: Seoul

PostPosted: Mon Sep 25, 2006 9:43 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

I brought this up with a colleague this morning and it rang a bell on something he recently read, so he directed me to the folowing book:

Anderson, S. R., & Lightfoot, D. W. (2002). The language organ: Linguistics as cognitive physiology. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press.

On pages 25 to 29 of the book this exact problem is discussed, with the final resolution being the following constraint:

Every syntactic phrase which corresponds to any pronounced material must contain enough material to make up at least one phonological word. (p. 29)

This constraint is then grounded in certain universals of human language, if anybody wants to look further in the book.

Let me offer some explanation of the constraint for non-linguists:

The sentence, *Harry isn't happy, but I'm, is ungrammatical. The contracted element, -m, is the only member of its syntactic phrase (I won't draw out the phrase structure here; trust me on this). However, phonologically, this element is a clitic, a phonological unit which cannot stand on its own and must be attached to another word to be realized. In other words, it is not a phonological word. Since the constraint claims that any syntactic phrase must contain enough material for a complete phonological word and -m is the only member of its syntactic phrase, but is not enough to be a phonological word, the sentence containing it is ungrammatical.

This probably isn't much clearer, but it's the best I can do. In short, it's nothing about stress, though.
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khyber



Joined: 16 Jan 2003
Location: Compunction Junction

PostPosted: Mon Sep 25, 2006 10:02 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

What about:
He can play soccer well, but I can't.

Is that also bad grammar then? Cause I swear that I say this kinda stuff ALL the time.
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ChuckECheese



Joined: 20 Jul 2006

PostPosted: Mon Sep 25, 2006 11:36 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

khyber wrote:
What about:
He can play soccer well, but I can't.

Is that also bad grammar then? Cause I swear that I say this kinda stuff ALL the time.


"Can", "could", and "would" or auxiliary verbs don't apply to the rule that I explained earlier. Only the verb be applies to the rule of contraction.
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Woland



Joined: 10 May 2006
Location: Seoul

PostPosted: Mon Sep 25, 2006 11:48 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

khyber wrote:
What about:
He can play soccer well, but I can't.

Is that also bad grammar then? Cause I swear that I say this kinda stuff ALL the time.


This is fine because the clitic -t here is not the sole member of its phrase. The constituent 'can't' is the member of the phrase, and as it is a phonological word, the constraint isn't violated.

As far as I can tell, contraction of negation will never violate the constraint because it is always contracted onto a verb of some kind, which will already be a member of the same phrase. Violation of the constraint can only occur with verbal contraction as far as I can tell. And, as this example from A & L shows, it needn't be invoked only be in final position:

I wonder where the concert is on Wednesday
*I wonder where the concert's on Wednesday (p. 29)

A & L go on to discuss other constraints in contraction arising from other interactions of phonology and syntax which I won't bother with here. What's above is what's relevant to the OP's question.

I should also note that I'm using words like 'phrase' here in a technical sense, defined with the generative theoretical approach to linguistics as used by A & L. It doesn't necessarily coincide with everyday definitions of 'phrase'.

This theoretical explanation, while elegant, is of limited use for teaching purposes. Nice for teachers to know, but should be reformulated before being given to students.
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gang ah jee



Joined: 14 Jan 2003
Location: city of paper

PostPosted: Mon Sep 25, 2006 11:54 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Woland wrote:
This theoretical explanation, while elegant, is of limited use for teaching purposes. Nice for teachers to know, but should be reformulated before being given to students.

Right. For the students I've always been happy with "no affirmative contractions at the end of sentences". "Why?" "It is the mystery of English."

Quote:
It's what happens when you let English majors rather than Linguistics majors answer grammar questions.

Quoted for truth.
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