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hela
Joined: 02 May 2004 Posts: 420 Location: Tunisia
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Posted: Wed Feb 11, 2009 10:30 am Post subject: 2 auxiliaries + adverb |
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Hello everyone,
In which other instances is it possible to have a sentence with a verb + 2 auxiliaries + adverb?
ex: "You can't have already finished typing this article."
He could never have beaten his wife. (correct?)
[is never an adverb of frequency here?]
Would you have other examples with other adverbs, please?
Thank you in advance. |
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Suzanne
Joined: 21 Apr 2008 Posts: 283 Location: Seattle, WA, USA
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Posted: Wed Feb 11, 2009 4:46 pm Post subject: |
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Hello,
I think your sentences are using past perfect tenses. They refer to something that already happened at the time we are talking about it.
You can't have already finished typing this article.
Other ways to say this:
You can't have finished typing this already.
You have finished typing this already?
You have finished typing this so soon?
He could never have beaten his wife.
Yes, it is correct like this. Yes, "never' is an adverb of frequency here, meaning 0% of the time.
Other examples:
He had always eaten oatmeal for breakfast, until he tasted his first Egg McMuffin.
She couldn't have ever taken a vacation alone, because she was so shy.
They should never have considered buying a home in this economy.
Does this help? |
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hela
Joined: 02 May 2004 Posts: 420 Location: Tunisia
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Posted: Wed Feb 11, 2009 10:16 pm Post subject: |
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Thanks Suzanne
But what I'm looking for are the types of adverbs that can occur with 2 auxiliaries, and their position in that case.
e.g. She couldn't have ever taken a vacation alone, because she was so shy.
- here ever or never can occur with 2 auxiliaries. Are there others?
- and should the adverb always come after the first auxiliary?
a) couldn't ever have taken
OR
b) couldn't have ever taken is also possible in writing.
Thanks a lot |
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hela
Joined: 02 May 2004 Posts: 420 Location: Tunisia
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Posted: Sat Feb 14, 2009 1:32 am Post subject: |
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One more question, please.
Could someone tell me when it is possible or impossible to split infinitives with an adverb.
e.g. a) It's hard to perfectly/fully understand her behaviour.
b) It's difficult to understand fully/perfectly her behaviour.
Are both of these constructions acceptable in writing? If yes, why then is this order accepted in some cases and not others? When is it never possible to split infinitives in writing (academic English)?
Thanks a lot |
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Suzanne
Joined: 21 Apr 2008 Posts: 283 Location: Seattle, WA, USA
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Posted: Sat Feb 14, 2009 8:48 am Post subject: |
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Good morning!
That is a great question--I just took a workshop on Changing Grammar. One of the examples was the rule about split infinitives. It's an old rule, based on Latin. In everyday English, we use split infinitive structures all the time. As languages change, the grammar rules change as well.
For academic/formal English, it's easy to avoid splitting infinitives. In informal English, you can do it without concern. In fact, it can sound more natural and less like you are speaking from a textbook.
Examples of two ways to say something--both are fine:
1. I'd like to really understand how to play soccer.
I'd really like to understand how to play soccer.
2. He began to slowly get up off the floor.
He slowly began to get up off the floor.
Your examples are good--I would use "fully" rather than "perfectly."
a) It's hard to fully understand her behaviour.
b) It's difficult to understand fully her behaviour.
I know this doesn't give you an exact answer, but it should help you not stress too much over what to do. Native English speakers don't worry about it!
Here's a link that you may find helpful. It talks about why we shouldn't worry about splitting infinitives.
http://www.bartleby.com/64/C001/059.html |
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hela
Joined: 02 May 2004 Posts: 420 Location: Tunisia
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Posted: Sun Feb 15, 2009 3:08 am Post subject: |
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Thank you very much, Suzanne  |
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