Dave's ESL Cafe's Student Discussion Forums

[learner12]

Hello, teachers!!

Tom spoke to the effect that he would have done with Nancy.
----->
I literally understand the sentence, but I cannot understand it completely.

Why didn't the author write "would do"?

(1)Tom spoke to the effect that he would have done with Nancy.
(2) Tom spoke to the effect that he would do with Nancy.

Do you have any differences between (1) and (2)?

Thank you in advance.

[pugachevV]

I don't know what book you are reading but "have done" is an expression that was used in earlier times. It means to be finished with
So it means Tom said he would have nothing more to do with Nancy.
I'm done = I'm finished.
I'm done with it;
I'm done with her.
It's done (for).

[Lorikeet]

I'm glad you understood it. I didn't before pugachevV answered!

[learner12]

Thank you teachers!!

Take care and have a nice day!!