Dave's ESL Cafe's Student Discussion Forums

[Marrion]

I saw many sentences in American web sites.

[1] None of them calls on me.
[2] None of them is friends with Marta.
[3] None of them were present.
[4] None of them was successful at Anfield.
[5] None of them suffer from burn-out.

I have known that "none of them" must be used with "plural verbs". but I found "none of them" is used with both "plural verbs and "singular verbs" in American web sites.

So I am confused...

I wonder if "none of + plural pronouns" can be used with "singular verbs" in the modern English.

[MrPedantic]

Hello Marrion

Some native speakers say that "none" is a singular pronoun. Some say that it's plural. Others say that it's sometimes plural, and sometimes singular.

My impression from English language websites is that speakers of American English are more likely to treat "none" as singular, while speakers of British English are more likely to treat it as plural.

In the partitive use ("none of them"), on the other hand, it's more usual in both British and American English to use the plural verb. However, because they're used to using the singular verb with "none", some speakers nonetheless insist on using the singular in "none of them".

As to whether "none" is singular or plural: the OED says that it can be either; but that the plural is the more usual form.

MrP

[Marrion]

Oh, now I got it.. Thank you very very much, sir.^0^