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bluebary
Joined: 04 Sep 2006 Posts: 26 Location: Turkiye
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Posted: Thu Oct 05, 2006 7:51 am Post subject: which tense |
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ı have a question which confuses me.
do you know someone affected by computer game ?
is it passive tense? if it is passive tense,it is necessary that a verb is between someone and affected ,isn't t ?
could you give some examples and explain that tense?
regards... _________________ I am not MaRRieD |
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redset
Joined: 18 Mar 2006 Posts: 582 Location: England
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Posted: Thu Oct 05, 2006 9:58 am Post subject: |
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I think this is an informal style, which is basically equal to:
'Do you know someone (who is/who was/who has been etc.) affected by computer games?'
It's passive because the subject is someone, but the subject is being acted on (in this case affected) by something else (a computer game/computer games). The subject is being acted on instead of doing the acting - if you rearrange the sentence so that the subject is also the actor, you're using the active voice:
Someone is affected by computer games (passive voice)
Computer games affect someone (active voice - 'computer games' is now the subject and the actor)
I think that's basically it - your initial sentence is really two clauses though (I think), so there may be more to it. There are plenty of teachers here with a strong background in linguistics though, I'm sure you'll get a better answer  |
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bluebary
Joined: 04 Sep 2006 Posts: 26 Location: Turkiye
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Posted: Sat Oct 07, 2006 11:01 pm Post subject: |
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"Thanks for your replying (to/concerning) my following question" is better.
We can remove the "who,which,that" after the subject but verb-be which is using in all passive tenses can't delete otherwise how we can understand that sentence is passive.
if passive is equal subject+Aux-verb(be)+v3, there is no meaning the removing "be" from the sentences.
Do you know someone (who)had been effected by computer games.
This gives us passive voice.
Do you know someone affected by computer games.this is not passive it gives us definite situation.
Absolutely,BE should use in the passive sentences.
present=(be=is)
past =(be=was)
in the other passive tenses, BE is using as been or being
if the sentence was made in continous tenses which, takes being or not been _________________ I am not MaRRieD |
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Lorikeet

Joined: 08 Oct 2005 Posts: 1877 Location: San Francisco
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Posted: Sun Oct 08, 2006 12:05 am Post subject: |
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Hmm I don't understand why you answered your own question. I agree with redset. The sentences is passive, and the "be" is deleted.
The car found in front of my house had been stolen. (The which was found in front of my house had been stolen.) This is a passive as well. You know it's a passive because of the meaning.
You can be unhappy that that's the way it is, but the "be" portion of a passive is often deleted in a clause of that kind. |
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lotus

Joined: 25 Jan 2004 Posts: 862
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Posted: Sun Oct 08, 2006 7:13 am Post subject: |
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Hi bluebary,
To see what's going on, turn the sentence around and make it a statement instead of a question:
Do you know someone (who has been) affected by computer games?
You do know someone who has been affected by computer games.
The subject is "you", the auxiliary verb is "do", the main verb is "know" and the object is "someone."
"Who has been affected by computer games" is a dependent relative clause whose subject is the pronoun "who." The verb "affected" is in the present perfect tense (has been.) The adverbial prepositional phrase is "by computer games."
The entire relative clause is passive because the subject "who" is being affected (acted on) by computer games.
Let's go back to the original sentence:
Do you know someone affected by computer games?
A clearer sentence might be:
Do you know of anyone who has been affected by computer games?
Note: passivity is a voice, not a tense.
--lotus _________________ War does not make one great --Yoda |
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