Dave's ESL Cafe's Student Discussion Forums

[ShoHiro]

Hello teachers,

I would like to know the meaning of the following sentence:

'Nor is there any place in the dictionaries for the many varied metaphorical uses to be found in the corpus, where inter alia hands, clouds, fog, steam and even darkness are said to be crawling:...'

This sentence is explained about the word crawl in some dictionaries. I think that this sentence can be roughly rewrited as "there is not any place for the many varied metaphorical uses to be found in the corpus in the dictionaries." I don't understand the phrase "for... to be..." here.

Does this mean (a) there is not any place for the many varied metaphorical uses which are found is the corpus in the dictionaries. or (b) there is not any place in order for the many varied metaphorical uses to be found in the corpus in the dictionaries, as in, say, "It is difficult for me to understand this sentence."

I think that the interpretation (a) is right. Would you rewrite the sentence above in easier English?

Sincerely,
ShoHiro

[asterix]

It means that the dictionaries do not make reference to the metaphorical uses of the word crawl that are contained in the body of work to which the writer is referring.
N.B. Can be rewritten... is the correct usage.

[ShoHiro]

Hello asterix,

Thank you very much for answering my question.

I'm sorry that my question may be incomprehensible. I would like to ask you to rewrite in easier English, but I will ask in a different way. I will write the sentence whose meaning I would like to know as (1):

(1) 'Nor is there any place in the dictionaries for the many varied metaphorical uses to be found in the corpus, where inter alia hands, clouds, fog, steam and even darkness are said to be crawling:...'

Does "to be", which is underlined in the sentence, modify adjacent noun "uses"?
For example, in (2) I have no friends to buy the house , "to buy the house" modify "friends." Is that right?
If so, sentence (1) can be paraphrased as "Nor is there any place in the dictionaries for the many varied metaphorical uses which are found in the corpus..."

Alternatively, does "for ... to..." have Nexus relation? In English, the connection "for... to..." means Nexus (subject and verb) relation. For example, (3) There are many things for us to do can be rewritten as There are many things which we should do.
In the latter case, sentence (1) can be paraphrased as "Nor is there any place in the dictionaries where the many varied metaphorical uses should be found in the corpus..."

I think that the former interpretation is right. Which interpretation is adequate? And if you don't mind, would you please rewrite this sentence without using "for... to," although the original words and phrases can be held? (I'm sorry to ask very difficult and selfish request.)

Best wishes
ShoHiro

[asterix]

The dictionaries do not refer to the metaphorical uses found in the body of work, (where, among others, hands, clouds, fog, steam and even darkness, are said to be crawling...)

If you want to really simplify the sentence, replace the comma after work with a period and omit all that is in parentheses.

Does "to be", which is underlined in the sentence, modify adjacent noun "uses"?
For example, in (2) I have no friends to buy the house , "to buy the house" modify "friends." Is that right?
If so, sentence (1) can be paraphrased as "Nor is there any place in the dictionaries for the many varied metaphorical uses which are found in the corpus..."

I would say this is the right interpretation and that you have correctly paraphrased the sentence.

[ShoHiro]

Hello asterix,

Thank you very much again.

I was relieved to hear your answer.

Thank you.

Sincerely,
ShoHiro