Adult native English speakers do not commit errors in usage

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metal56
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Adult native English speakers do not commit errors in usage

Post by metal56 » Wed Jul 25, 2007 9:39 am

I keep hearing "adult native English speakers do not commit errors in usage".

Do you agree with that "quote"?

jotham
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Post by jotham » Wed Jul 25, 2007 11:01 am

If true, we can rid the world of highly paid editors.

metal56
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Post by metal56 » Wed Jul 25, 2007 12:31 pm

jotham wrote:If true, we can rid the world of highly paid editors.
Were would we send 'em?

jotham
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Post by jotham » Wed Jul 25, 2007 1:43 pm

To linguistics school, so we can indoctrinate them about the real deal, of course.

metal56
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Post by metal56 » Wed Jul 25, 2007 3:19 pm

jotham wrote:To linguistics school, so we can indoctrinate them about the real deal, of course.
It'd serve them right.

:lol:

Miss Elenious
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Re: Adult native English speakers do not commit errors in us

Post by Miss Elenious » Wed Jul 25, 2007 4:10 pm

metal56 wrote:I keep hearing "adult native English speakers do not commit errors in usage".

Do you agree with that "quote"?

I don't know about native English speakers but native Greek speakers certainly do: errors in tenses, collocations, spelling... But, to err is human. Have the English gone a step further?

Where do you 'keep hearing' such quotes?

Miss Elenious
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Post by Miss Elenious » Wed Jul 25, 2007 4:13 pm

oh yes, I wanted to ask you something else...is there a difference between a native Greek speaker and a Greek native speaker. Is the second ungrammatical?

azamouri
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native Greek speaker and Greek native speaker?

Post by azamouri » Wed Jul 25, 2007 10:32 pm

if we consider the grammatical rules, especially the order of adjectives modifying a noun, we can say that the second is ungrammatical. However, if we focus on their meaning, so there is a little difference: the first phrase [b]native Greek speaker[/b] can mean: [i]the speaker who speaks Greek is native[/i] but the second can mean [i]the native speaker is Greek[/i].

Abdelhak,

metal56
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Re: Adult native English speakers do not commit errors in us

Post by metal56 » Thu Jul 26, 2007 7:01 am

Miss Elenious wrote:
I don't know about native English speakers but native Greek speakers certainly do: errors in tenses, collocations, spelling... But, to err is human. Have the English gone a step further?
I don't think so.
Where do you 'keep hearing' such quotes?
All over language fora - and mostly from native speakers.

metal56
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Post by metal56 » Thu Jul 26, 2007 7:07 am

Miss Elenious wrote:oh yes, I wanted to ask you something else...is there a difference between a native Greek speaker and a Greek native speaker. Is the second ungrammatical?
Greek native speaker = the person is probably born into a Greek family and speaks Greek.
native Greek speaker = he/she speaks the Greek of Greece.

There are more possibilities of course.

metal56
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Post by metal56 » Thu Jul 26, 2007 7:22 am

if we consider the grammatical rules, especially the order of adjectives modifying a noun, we can say that the second is ungrammatical.
The "rule" about the order of adjectives is not a rule, it is only a guideline.

Native Greek/English/Spanish, etc. are the forms of a language originated in a certain area.

In your order of adjectives, that would be native (origin) + noun (Greek).

womblingfree
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Post by womblingfree » Wed Aug 22, 2007 3:50 am

Everyone makes errors in language usage whether through laziness, abbreviation, vernacular, coloquialism, slang, whatever.

You could argue that if it's being spoken by a native or non-native speaker and becomes a regular part of use then it's not a mistake anyway just a variation.

Spoken language often bears little resemblance to written structure.

jotham
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Post by jotham » Wed Aug 22, 2007 5:44 am

womblingfree wrote:Spoken language often bears little resemblance to written structure.
True. But at the same time, spoken language often bears much resemblance to written structure, especially in literate societies. Both statements are true.
Not that this had anything to do with the flow of the thread...

metal56
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Post by metal56 » Wed Aug 22, 2007 6:12 am

But at the same time, spoken language often bears much resemblance to written structure, especially in literate societies.
!!! Do you have any examples of such?

jotham
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Post by jotham » Wed Aug 22, 2007 6:56 am

I don't have any specific examples since it's a general influence. Well-developed writing has a conservative effect on language; compared to societies lacking such a literary tradition. I'm surprised you never heard this. This site may have a little bit on it.
The permanent nature of print also led to the preservation of language. The mass dissemination of printed texts meant both fixity and standardization of content (Eisentsein, 1983).
Print arrested linguistic drift, standardized language, and eventually led to the deliberate codification of written language.

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