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sheeba
Joined: 17 Jun 2004
Posts: 1123
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 Posted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 8:17 am Post subject: Comparatives |
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I got corrected today . I was talking about a task that was better to do now than leave until later on .
I talked about the task and then said ' It's more easy '
Should I have said 'it's easier '
Swan says - (and this is I think the UK rule)
When we compare two descriptions (saying that one is more suitable or accurate than another), we use 'more' - 'He's more lazy than stupid '
What about if you have in mind a comparison (as I did ) but don't utter the words . Can you just just say 'It's more easy '  |
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dmb
Joined: 12 Feb 2003
Posts: 8397
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| Posted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 9:00 am Post subject: |
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| I think both are acceptable. However, a general rule is that 2 syllable adjectives ending in y take -ier and -iest and y 'bye-bye' |
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zorro (3)
Joined: 19 Dec 2006
Posts: 202
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| Posted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 11:47 am Post subject: |
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| In written standard English, I would say that 'easier' was more correct (correcter). In spoken English we don't always stick to the standard though. |
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Glenski
Joined: 15 Jan 2003
Posts: 12844
Location: Hokkaido, JAPAN
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| Posted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 12:37 pm Post subject: |
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| Quote: |
When we compare two descriptions (saying that one is more suitable or accurate than another), we use 'more' - 'He's more lazy than stupid '
What about if you have in mind a comparison (as I did ) but don't utter the words . Can you just just say 'It's more easy |
Being lazy has its hazards. Here, if you meant "It's more easy than...[something]", then unless both sides know what that something was, you will sound strange and incorrect. Even if both sides know, it's way too casual to be accepted as correct English, especially by grammarians. |
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John Hall
Joined: 16 Mar 2004
Posts: 452
Location: San Jose, Costa Rica
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| Posted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 4:56 pm Post subject: |
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| Glenski wrote: |
| it's way too casual to be accepted as correct English, especially by grammarians. |
But it does occur in common usage, despite what grammarians say. I have done a lesson based on an interview on National Public Radio in which during the discussion, the participants said both "more shy" and "shyer." Apparently, they used "more shy" as a way to emphasize the fact that a person was "shyer." |
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ls650
Joined: 10 May 2003
Posts: 3484
Location: British Columbia
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| Posted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 5:22 pm Post subject: |
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| John Hall wrote: |
| Apparently, they used "more shy" as a way to emphasize the fact that a person was "shyer." |
Whenever this sort of example comes up in class, I ask my students if they ever deliberately say things incorrectly in their own language to add emphasis or exaggeration. Of course, the answer is yes.
I then tell them that as a native speaker I know the rules, and I know best how to break 'em. As a non-native speakers, if they stick to the rules they're less likely to say something that just doesn't make sense. |
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rusmeister
Joined: 15 Jun 2006
Posts: 867
Location: Russia
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| Posted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 5:32 pm Post subject: |
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You'll notice, though, that technically incorrect usage that we'll accept from a native speaker is a lot more unacceptable coming from a foreigner.
They have to be taught proper, formal English and know what is most correct. That's certainly what they're expected to know on standardized tests like TOEFL.
The basic rule is that one syllable adjectives universally take -er/ the x-est, 3 or more-syllable words take more and the most, and 2 syllable adjectives (the bugbear) are treated like the short ones if they end in -y, -w, and a couple of other endings, most others, esp. if they have a clear suffix, are treated like the long ones. A few, like stupid and narrow, can legally go either way.
If anyone has a 100%-clear rule that expalins all of the 2-syllable adj endings, I'm interested. The grammar books don't cover or explain everything, and I figured out those rules over several years of having to teach them. |
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Stephen Jones
Joined: 21 Feb 2003
Posts: 4124
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| Posted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 6:36 pm Post subject: |
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Rusmeister is right here. The rule is clear for one- and three-syllable adjectives but fuzzy for two-syllable ones.
It depends to a large extent on the ending. If the adjective ends in '-ing' it will take 'more' and until recently, if it ended in ''y' it would take '-er'. However there has been a tendency for the regular form 'more' to gain ground with many two-syllable adjectives. |
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John Hall
Joined: 16 Mar 2004
Posts: 452
Location: San Jose, Costa Rica
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| Posted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 6:51 pm Post subject: |
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| ls650 wrote: |
Whenever this sort of example comes up in class, I ask my students if they ever deliberately say things incorrectly in their own language to add emphasis or exaggeration. Of course, the answer is yes.
I then tell them that as a native speaker I know the rules, and I know best how to break 'em. |
Is my example ("more shy"/"shyer") an example of breaking the rules, or in fact a fairly common way to emphasize a comparative? |
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dmb
Joined: 12 Feb 2003
Posts: 8397
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| Posted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 7:18 pm Post subject: |
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I wasn't clear in my previous post. Because I was drunker/ more drunk? Which?
Again, I think both are acceptable...... but then I am drunker/ more drunk than you.  |
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