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Comparatives
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sheeba



Joined: 17 Jun 2004
Posts: 1123

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 8:17 am    Post subject: Comparatives Reply with quote

I got corrected today . I was talking about a task that was better to do now than leave until later on .

I talked about the task and then said ' It's more easy '

Should I have said 'it's easier '

Swan says - (and this is I think the UK rule)

When we compare two descriptions (saying that one is more suitable or accurate than another), we use 'more' - 'He's more lazy than stupid '

What about if you have in mind a comparison (as I did ) but don't utter the words . Can you just just say 'It's more easy ' Question
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dmb



Joined: 12 Feb 2003
Posts: 8397

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 9:00 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

I think both are acceptable. However, a general rule is that 2 syllable adjectives ending in y take -ier and -iest and y 'bye-bye'
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zorro (3)



Joined: 19 Dec 2006
Posts: 202

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 11:47 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

In written standard English, I would say that 'easier' was more correct (correcter). In spoken English we don't always stick to the standard though.
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Glenski



Joined: 15 Jan 2003
Posts: 12844
Location: Hokkaido, JAPAN

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 12:37 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Quote:
When we compare two descriptions (saying that one is more suitable or accurate than another), we use 'more' - 'He's more lazy than stupid '

What about if you have in mind a comparison (as I did ) but don't utter the words . Can you just just say 'It's more easy
Being lazy has its hazards. Here, if you meant "It's more easy than...[something]", then unless both sides know what that something was, you will sound strange and incorrect. Even if both sides know, it's way too casual to be accepted as correct English, especially by grammarians.
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John Hall



Joined: 16 Mar 2004
Posts: 452
Location: San Jose, Costa Rica

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 4:56 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Glenski wrote:
it's way too casual to be accepted as correct English, especially by grammarians.


But it does occur in common usage, despite what grammarians say. I have done a lesson based on an interview on National Public Radio in which during the discussion, the participants said both "more shy" and "shyer." Apparently, they used "more shy" as a way to emphasize the fact that a person was "shyer."
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ls650



Joined: 10 May 2003
Posts: 3484
Location: British Columbia

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 5:22 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

John Hall wrote:
Apparently, they used "more shy" as a way to emphasize the fact that a person was "shyer."
Whenever this sort of example comes up in class, I ask my students if they ever deliberately say things incorrectly in their own language to add emphasis or exaggeration. Of course, the answer is yes.

I then tell them that as a native speaker I know the rules, and I know best how to break 'em. As a non-native speakers, if they stick to the rules they're less likely to say something that just doesn't make sense.
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rusmeister



Joined: 15 Jun 2006
Posts: 867
Location: Russia

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 5:32 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

You'll notice, though, that technically incorrect usage that we'll accept from a native speaker is a lot more unacceptable coming from a foreigner.
They have to be taught proper, formal English and know what is most correct. That's certainly what they're expected to know on standardized tests like TOEFL.

The basic rule is that one syllable adjectives universally take -er/ the x-est, 3 or more-syllable words take more and the most, and 2 syllable adjectives (the bugbear) are treated like the short ones if they end in -y, -w, and a couple of other endings, most others, esp. if they have a clear suffix, are treated like the long ones. A few, like stupid and narrow, can legally go either way.

If anyone has a 100%-clear rule that expalins all of the 2-syllable adj endings, I'm interested. The grammar books don't cover or explain everything, and I figured out those rules over several years of having to teach them.
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Stephen Jones



Joined: 21 Feb 2003
Posts: 4124

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 6:36 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Rusmeister is right here. The rule is clear for one- and three-syllable adjectives but fuzzy for two-syllable ones.

It depends to a large extent on the ending. If the adjective ends in '-ing' it will take 'more' and until recently, if it ended in ''y' it would take '-er'. However there has been a tendency for the regular form 'more' to gain ground with many two-syllable adjectives.
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John Hall



Joined: 16 Mar 2004
Posts: 452
Location: San Jose, Costa Rica

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 6:51 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

ls650 wrote:
Whenever this sort of example comes up in class, I ask my students if they ever deliberately say things incorrectly in their own language to add emphasis or exaggeration. Of course, the answer is yes.

I then tell them that as a native speaker I know the rules, and I know best how to break 'em.


Is my example ("more shy"/"shyer") an example of breaking the rules, or in fact a fairly common way to emphasize a comparative?
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dmb



Joined: 12 Feb 2003
Posts: 8397

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 7:18 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

I wasn't clear in my previous post. Because I was drunker/ more drunk? Which?

Again, I think both are acceptable...... but then I am drunker/ more drunk than you. Wink
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Mike_2003



Joined: 27 Mar 2003
Posts: 344
Location: Bucharest, Romania

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 7:27 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Isn't is something like 'more a case of him being shy'?

For example 'He is more shy than quiet' as a way of pointing out the reason for his lack of conversational skills?
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coffeedrinker



Joined: 30 Jul 2006
Posts: 149

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 7:51 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

I think I'm with Mike above, at least somewhat.

I don't think the original sentence was really a comparative...or not the kind that we mean when we think about these simple rules cited.

You're not saying it was easier (than something else), you're saying it was easy and not something else, or more so than something else, like "It was more "70s" than "80s", wearing bell bottoms"...You're not comparing the 70s and 80s to each other.
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John Hall



Joined: 16 Mar 2004
Posts: 452
Location: San Jose, Costa Rica

PostPosted: Wed Mar 28, 2007 10:18 pm    Post subject: Reply with quote

Here is the context:

"The problem is Americans are, generally speaking, more shy than many people would expect, and getting shyer all the time."
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rusmeister



Joined: 15 Jun 2006
Posts: 867
Location: Russia

PostPosted: Thu Mar 29, 2007 3:37 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

dmb wrote:
I wasn't clear in my previous post. Because I was drunker/ more drunk? Which?

Again, I think both are acceptable...... but then I am drunker/ more drunk than you. Wink


Actually, the proper adjective is drunken (drunk as an adjective is colloquial modern usage), and -en is a suffix, so the answer is clear (more drunken). Drunk is the (past) participle, 3rd form of the verb drink, (hope you're requiring learning of the verb forms!)
The rules for adjectives (and subsequently comparisons) are not necessarily the same as for participles.

"More shy" reflects what Stephen was saying, I think.

"More this than that'" is really a phrase, not a simple adjective, and therefore takes the default 'more'.

The rules explain almost everything! (Except the exceptions, of course)
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furiousmilksheikali



Joined: 31 Jul 2006
Posts: 1660
Location: In a coffee shop, splitting a 30,000 yen tab with Sekiguchi.

PostPosted: Thu Mar 29, 2007 7:12 am    Post subject: Reply with quote

coffeedrinker wrote:
I don't think the original sentence was really a comparative...or not the kind that we mean when we think about these simple rules cited.

You're not saying it was easier (than something else), you're saying it was easy and not something else, or more so than something else, like "It was more "70s" than "80s", wearing bell bottoms"...You're not comparing the 70s and 80s to each other.


I agree with this post. Although the bold parts seem to contradict each other I think I understand what you mean.

In the example from Swan the sentence is "He's more lazy than stupid". This sentence uses two adjectives about the same object and determining which of the adjectives apply better to the person.

This is not *"He's more lazy than Susan" or "He's lazier than Susan" we are only talking about him and not comparing him to anyone else.

It makes no sense to use comparative forms of the adjectives in the Swam case otherwise the sentence would be *"He's more lazier than more stupid".
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