I have lived in Britain for ... / I have been living...

[cftranslate]

- I have lived in Britain for 4 years
- I have been living in Britain for 4 years

Are these two sentences equivalent? Are both used by native speakers?

Thanks

[metal56]

- I have lived in Britain for 4 years
- I have been living in Britain for 4 years

Are these two sentences equivalent? Are both used by native speakers?

Thanks

Yes, they can be used to refer to the same experience:

"I now live in here Britain and have been here for 4 years."

or:

"I have just/recently ended the 4 period of being in Britain."


But, the first (have + -ed) can also refer to a period in the more distant past. Normally, it used in a list of experiences one has had in life:

"Well, I've lived in Britain for 4 years, France for two, Spain for 8 months and now I'm back home in Germany."

[Stephen Jones]

Normally there is no difference in meaning; however as metal 56 said 'I've lived in Britain does not necessarily imply you are still living there.